manifested in the flesh?
Oneness claims God is manifested in the flesh. Interpreted as the one person who is
God took on flesh. But He (God), can also be manifested in three ways (and more).
Why are these not three persons? Which is the one person who is God and which of the two
are not persons when all appear simultaneously?
The Bibles Answer-
1 Tim.3:16 God was manifested in the flesh (appeared in) 1 Jn.4:2; 2 Jn. 7
came in the flesh. 1 Jn.1:2: For the life was manifested, and we have
seen it, and bear witness, and shew unto you that eternal life, which was with
the Father, and was manifested unto us.
1 Tim.3:16 says it was God come in the flesh, a person, not just eternal life that
was manifested. Where does it say the Father was manifested in the flesh? It does not
ever say this. The only time a specific person is mentioned as God being manifested is
found in 1 John 3:8, For this purpose the Son of God was manifested.
Whereas Oneness claims that the Father was manifested the Bible makes it clear that
specifically the person of God is the Son, He was the God who was revealed and made
known. This should clarify the issue that if the eternal life that was manifested was
with the Father (1 Jn.1:2) is not a person, then the Son of God is not a person either.
This means the person of God was not literally manifested in the flesh but something
lesser than his actual nature or identity.
If we go back to verse we find this. V.5 And you know that HE was manifested to
take away our sins. Here John is identifying the deity was made known. Who is the
Jn.1:2 He was in the beginning with God all things were made through
him... In him was life... From this we see this life is in a he,
which is a person. This he was with another person and this other
made everything through him. Again in vs.10 He was in the world, and the world
was made through him. This is the same he and him that
is previously established to be with God, the same he in vs.1 who was with
the Father. Obviously from the Scriptures, the Son, not just the Father had eternal
life. He was made known, and revealed to mankind, this is the eternal life of
Jn.1:2 that was with the Father. So we see from the Scripture that there was another person
(He) that was with the Father before creation began.
This also shows the truthfulness of Jesus prayer in Jn.17:5 which is not about his
future humanity. Jesus is reflecting back and praying in the present asking to be
glorified as He once was with the Father before the creation. Together WITH
yourself. But Oneness makes this a non- event since He could not have been with
the Father. They says Jesus was only talking about
the glory He had as God and the future glory of the Son which was in the mind of
But Jesus says He was with the Father before the world began. John the apostle
said in Jn.1:2 He was there in the beginning with God. And Jn1:10 the
world was made through Him. This very same concept is written from the writer in
Hebrews1 that, God made the worlds through the Son, as well as
Col.1:15. If He is not literally there, then it is a lie. By the Oneness interpretation
the universe is made through His future humanness (which began in his birth). Therefore
He cannot be the creator, but only a man. The Son therefore created nothing. The Bible
shows these are not roles that the one God acts in, for both are there as persons,
taking part in creation. In the Beginning God created the heavens and the earth.
John 1:18 states, No one has seen God at any time. The only begotten Son who is
in the bosom of the Father, he has declared Him. When was the Son with the
Father in this manner? Before He was incarnated. As a thought, a plan? No as a person.
If we change the Son to be future tense why not the Father too. Why does one exist
before creation and not the other who is WITH Him? The Bible is clear they both
literally, personally and simultaneously exist. As Prov.30:4 asks in relation to the
creative acts what is His name and what is his Sons name, if you know?