Who was manifested in the flesh?

Oneness claims God is manifested in the flesh. Interpreted as the one person who is God took on flesh.  But He (God), can also be manifested in three ways (and more). Why are these not three persons? Which is the one person who is God and which of the two are not persons when  all appear simultaneously?

The Bibles Answer-

1 Tim.3:16 “God was manifested in the flesh” (appeared in) 1 Jn.4:2; 2 Jn. 7 “came in the flesh.” 1 Jn.1:2: For “the life was manifested, and we have seen it, and bear witness, and shew unto you that eternal life, which was with the Father, and was manifested unto us.”

1 Tim.3:16 says it was God come in the flesh, a person, not just eternal life that was manifested. Where does it say the Father was manifested in the flesh? It does not ever say this. The only time a specific person is mentioned as God being manifested is found in 1 John 3:8, “For this purpose the Son of God was manifested.” Whereas Oneness claims that the Father was manifested the Bible makes it clear that specifically the person of God is the Son, He was the God who was revealed and made known. This should clarify the issue that if the eternal life that was manifested was with the Father (1 Jn.1:2) is not a person, then the Son of God is not a person either. This means the person of God was not literally manifested in the flesh but something lesser than his actual nature or identity.

If we go back to verse we find this. V.5 “And you know that HE was manifested to take away our sins.” Here John is identifying the deity was made known. Who is the “He”?

Jn.1:2 “He was in the beginning with God all things were made through him... In him was life... From this we see this life is in a he, which is a person. This he was with another person and this other made everything through him. Again in vs.10 “He was in the world, and the world was made through him. This is the same he and him that is previously established to be with God, the same he in vs.1 who was with the Father. Obviously from the Scriptures, the Son, not just the Father had eternal life. He was made known, and revealed to mankind, this is the eternal life of Jn.1:2 that was with the Father. So we see from the Scripture that there was another person (He) that was with the Father before creation began.

This also shows the truthfulness of Jesus’ prayer in Jn.17:5 which is not about his future humanity. Jesus is reflecting back and praying in the present asking to be glorified as He once was with the Father before the creation. “Together WITH yourself.” But Oneness makes this a non- event since He could not have been with the Father. They says Jesus was only talking about the glory He had as God and the future glory of the Son which was in the mind of God.

But Jesus says He was “with the Father before the world began.” John the apostle said in Jn.1:2 He was there in the beginning with God. And Jn1:10 the world was made through Him. This very same concept is written from the writer in Hebrews1 that, “God made the worlds through the Son”, as well as Col.1:15. If He is not literally there, then it is a lie. By the Oneness interpretation the universe is made through His future humanness (which began in his birth). Therefore He cannot be the creator, but only a man. The Son therefore created nothing. The Bible shows these are not roles that the one God acts in, for both are there as persons, taking part in creation. In the Beginning God created the heavens and the earth.

John 1:18 states, “ No one has seen God at any time. The only begotten Son who is in the bosom of the Father, he has declared Him.” When was the Son with the Father in this manner? Before He was incarnated. As a thought, a plan? No as a person. If we change the Son to be future tense why not the Father too. Why does one exist before creation and not the other who is WITH Him? The Bible is clear they both literally, personally and simultaneously exist. As Prov.30:4 asks in relation to the creative acts what is His name and what is his Sons name, if you know?