Why the Father is not the Son, nor the Spirit
If there is confusion on the persons in God there will also be
confusion on everything related to each one of the persons.
Scripture tells us, God is eternal and does not change. If there
is an eternal Father who is God, then there is an eternal Son, and an eternal
comforter/ Helper (Holy Spirit). In human terms one cannot have a Father without
having a Son. This is how God explained himself in these terms of relationship.
The title, Lord Jesus Christ, applies to the Son alone not the Father.
If the Father (deity) is in the Son (humanity) then they are one
individual with one mind. Then the Mk.13:32 statement is impossible. This is
like saying I know something that myself and I do not know, which is absurd! If
one says his humanity or human spirit did not know but his God spirit did, again
this makes no sense. Can the same person with the same mind know
something and not know it at the same time? He (Jesus) did not possess two
minds. The only sensible answer is that the Father is a different person than
the Son of God.
Who sent the Son and who sent the Spirit?
One does not send themselves. This violates grammatical language
and itsmeaning of its intent. God the Father did not become man, He sent the Son
(who is also God) from heaven, and the Son of God (eternally) took on a human
nature and became the Son of man. How do we know this? The Bible says
If the Father sent the son from heaven as the savior. It should
be evident the Father did not become man. Then one has to deal with another
explanation.
I Jn. 3:8 “For this purpose the Son of God was manifested.”
1 Tim. 3:16 “God was manifested in the flesh,” which
confirms the Son is God who became man, not the Father. And I Jn. 1:2 explains
that this eternal life that was manifested was the Son who was with the Father.
‘the life was manifested, and we have seen, and bear witness, and declare to you
that eternal life which was with the Father and was manifested to us”
Jesus said “He who does not honor the Son does not honor the
Father who sent him." This would make no sense if they are both the same in
person. It would be said differently if they were the same in person.
In the Old Testament we have a clear depiction of the trinity.
Isa. 48:16 "Come near to Me, hear this: I have not spoken in secret from the
beginning; from the time that it was, I was there. And now the Lord GOD and His
Spirit have sent Me."
He mentions two others along with himself, the Lord God and his
Spirit have both sent Him (the I and the me). He was there from the
beginning as Jn.1:1-3 states. In other words when creation began, He was present
just as the Father and the Spirit were present.
The Me is identified as the Son, how do we know this? Because he
clarified it in the New Testament.
Jesus: "I spoke openly to the world. I always taught in
synagogues and in the temple, where the Jews always meet, and in secret I have
said nothing (John 18:20).
John 3:34 "For He whom God has sent speaks the words of God.”
John 4:34 Jesus said to them, "My food is to do the will of
Him who sent Me, and to finish His work.”
It is always another’s will Jesus is doing as a servant, the
Father’s. Thus he is equal in nature but not the same in person. John 5:23 "that
all should honor the Son just as they honor the Father. He who does not honor
the Son does not honor the Father who sent Him.”
John 5:30 "I can of Myself do nothing. As I hear, I judge;
and My judgment is righteous, because I do not seek My own will but the will of
the Father who sent Me.’
In all these statements Jesus distinguishes Himself from the
Father, He is doing another’s will as he came as a servant.
The strongest testimony to why the Father is not the Son is that
they communicate to each other and they appear in two different places as they
communicate. in other words, Jesus is not talking to himself as the Father,
neither is the Father speaking to himself as the Son.
John 12:27-30 "Now My soul is troubled, and what shall I say?
'Father, save Me from this hour'? But for this purpose I came to this hour.
"Father, glorify Your name." Then a voice came from heaven, saying, "I have both
glorified it and will glorify it again." Therefore the people who stood by and
heard it said that it had thundered. Others said, "An angel has spoken to Him."
Jesus answered and said, "This voice did not come because of Me, but for your
sake.”
Jesus speaks to the Father, a voice comes from another, it was
the Father speaking to the Son.
Jesus later says John 12:45-47 "He who believes in Me,
believes not in Me but in Him who sent Me. "And he who sees Me sees Him who sent
Me. "I have come as a light into the world, that whoever believes in Me should
not abide in darkness."And if anyone hears My words and does not believe, I do
not judge him; for I did not come to judge the world but to save the world.”
The one who sent Jesus is invisible, but they were able to see
who He is by the works the Son did to glorify him. And He was able to do this
because he is equal in nature.
John 14 Philip said to Him, "Lord, show us the Father,
and it is sufficient for us." Jesus SAID TO HIM, "Have I been with you so
long, and yet you have not known Me, Philip? HE WHO HAS SEEN ME HAS SEEN THE
FATHER; so how can you say, "Show us the Father'?
When Jesus used this expression “if you have seen me you have
seen the Father” He meant that as the Son He is expressing His Father’s
nature. He is making the Father who is invisible known. The nature of the
invisible God can be seen in action, by His words and deeds. Remember that is
the same John writes that Jesus said no man has seen the Father (John 6:46). So
this is contrary to those saying Jesus is confirming here that he is the Father.
Because they had seen Jesus who is the Son of God, (the Image of
God, 1:18) therefore God the Father, who is invisible is like Jesus and Jesus
who is visible is like the Father. Furthermore in Jn. 12:45 45: Jesus states, “And
he who sees Me sees Him who sent Me.”
Because they had seen Jesus who is the Son of God, (the Image of
God, 1:18) therefore God the Father, who is invisible is like Jesus and Jesus
who is visible is like the Father.
Examining John 10:30 and Jesus’ claim “I and my Father are
one.” In V.33 the Jews pick up stones because they understood this as
blasphemy. In v.36 Jesus interprets what He meant by saying, “because I said,
I am the Son of God.” Clearly Jesus knew who he was (not the Father)
Just as John the Baptizer knew he was not Elijah. Thus the statement “I and my Father are one
(literally in Greek: we are one), in nature not person. This what Jesus
meant in John 10:38 “… that you may know and believe that the Father is in
Me, and I in Him.”
Contrary to those who claim the Son of God means anything
less than equal with God, it actually affirmed His deity. If all the words
for sons were equal, why would they want to stone Jesus for calling himself a
son of God, if they were all sons too? Here Jesus connects His unique term and
position of being the Son of God to being equal with God, a claim no man would
dare apply to himself. That is why their reaction and saying he is blaspheming.
the Bible never says the Father was incarnated as man, nor that
the son is only a human. Jesus said in Mt. 16 to Peter the Father who is in
heaven has revealed to him who he is (The Son of the living God) so he is not
the Father,
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